UPSC Prelims 2026Answer Key & Solutions

Option (D) — Dheera Shankarabharanam

• Raga Bilawal is the foundational raga of Hindustani music using the Shuddha Swaras (natural notes): Sa Re Ga Ma Pa Dha Ni Sa, corresponding to the Western C major scale.
• In Carnatic music, the equivalent Melakarta raga with all Shuddha Swaras is Dheera Shankarabharanam (29th Melakarta).
• Nat Bhairavi corresponds to Asavari thaat, Hanumatodi corresponds to Bhairavi thaat, and Kamavardhini corresponds to Marwa thaat in Hindustani music.

• a. Nat Bhairavi: Incorrect. Nat Bhairavi is the Carnatic equivalent of Raga Asavari (Kafi thaat by some accounts) or Bhairavi, not Bilawal.
• b. Kamavardhini: Incorrect. Kamavardhini (Pantuvarali) corresponds to Purvi or Marwa thaat in Hindustani music.
• c. Hanumatodi: Incorrect. Hanumatodi corresponds to Bhairavi thaat in Hindustani music.
• d. Dheera Shankarabharanam: Correct. It uses all natural (Shuddha) notes, exactly like Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music.

Option (A) — Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India's creditworthiness

• The Hilton-Young Commission (Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance, 1926) recommended fixing the rupee-sterling exchange rate at 1s 6d (1 Rupee = 1 shilling 6 pence).
• The primary purpose of this fixed exchange rate was to facilitate the smooth flow of Home Charges and remittances from India to Britain, and to maintain India's creditworthiness in international markets.
• Indian nationalists criticized this rate as being set too high, which made Indian exports costlier and imports cheaper, thereby draining India's wealth to Britain.
• The overvaluation of the rupee hurt Indian exporters and benefited British manufacturers who exported goods to India.

• a. Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India's creditworthiness: Correct. The fixed rate ensured stable remittances (Home Charges) to Britain and maintained confidence in India's currency.
• b. Providing support to Indian importers: Incorrect. While a high rupee value indirectly helped importers, this was not the stated reason for the policy.
• c. Encouraging export of cotton produce from India: Incorrect. The overvalued rupee actually made Indian exports more expensive and less competitive.
• d. Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold: Incorrect. This was not the primary reason; the policy was about sterling-rupee parity for facilitating British financial interests.

Option (C) — Both 1 and 2

• The emergence of punch-marked coins and monetary references in Pali texts (like kahapana, nikkha) are key markers of the Second Urbanization in Indian history (circa 6th century BCE onwards).
• The use of coins signifies the transition from barter to a money economy, which facilitated trade and commerce in the newly emerging urban centers (mahajanapadas).
• Archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins, mostly made of silver, has been found at numerous sites associated with early historic urban settlements, corroborating the Pali literary evidence.
• Both urbanization and monetization were interlinked processes. towns and cities needed a standardized medium of exchange, and coins enabled more complex economic transactions.

• 1. Emergence of urban life: Correct. The references to coins in Pali texts and archaeological finds of punch-marked coins are closely associated with the Second Urbanization in India.
• 2. Transition to money economy: Correct. The appearance of standardized coinage marks the shift from barter to a monetized economy, a hallmark of urbanization in the 6th century BCE period.

Option (B) — Huchimalligudi and Dashavatara temples have Nagara shikharas

• Indian temple architecture is broadly classified into the Nagara style of the North and the Dravida style of the South.
• The Nagara style is prominently characterized by a curvilinear tower known as a shikhara, which tapers inward as it rises.
• The Chalukyan sites of Aihole, Badami and Pattadakal are famous for experimenting with both Nagara and Dravida architectural styles in close proximity.

• 1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami: Incorrect. This temple features an early structural Dravida style architecture with an octagonal dome, not a Nagara shikhara.
• 2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole: Correct. This Chalukyan temple is topped with a distinct curvilinear Nagara style shikhara.
• 3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh: Correct. Built during the Gupta period, it is recognized as one of the earliest examples of a Nagara style shikhara.
• 4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal: Incorrect. Built by Queen Lokamahadevi, this temple is a classic example of Dravida style architecture.

Option (B) — Yaksha (demi-gods)

• Jainism recognizes four main forms of existence (gatis) in the cycle of birth and death (samsara): Deva (gods/celestial beings), Manushya (humans), Tiryancha (animals and plants), and Naraki (hellish beings).
• Yaksha (demi-gods) is not one of the four gatis in Jain philosophy, although Yakshas and Yakshinis are associated with Jain tradition as attendant deities of the Tirthankaras.
• The concept of four gatis is fundamental to Jain cosmology and soteriology, as liberation (moksha) means escaping from the cycle of these four forms of existence.

• a. Deva (gods): Incorrect choice. Deva is one of the four recognized gatis in Jainism.
• b. Yaksha (demi-gods): Correct choice. Yaksha is NOT one of the four main forms of existence in Jainism. The fourth gati is Naraki (hellish beings), not Yaksha.
• c. Manushya (humans): Incorrect choice. Manushya is one of the four recognized gatis in Jainism.
• d. Tiryancha (animals and plants): Incorrect choice. Tiryancha is one of the four recognized gatis in Jainism.

Option (A) — A joyous folk dance

• The Bagh Caves are a group of nine rock-cut caves situated in Bagh town of Dhar district, Madhya Pradesh, dating to the 5th-6th century AD.
• The caves are famous for their mural paintings, which are often compared to the Ajanta cave paintings.
• The term Hallisalasya refers to a group dance or a joyous folk dance depicted in the murals of Bagh Caves, showing a procession of dancers in lively movement.
• This painting is one of the most celebrated artworks from the Bagh Caves and depicts a festive, communal dance scene.

• (a) A joyous folk dance: Correct. Hallisalasya is a depiction of a group folk dance, which is one of the most famous murals in the Bagh Caves.
• (b) Buddha in a meditative pose: Incorrect. While the caves are Buddhist in origin, the Hallisalasya painting specifically depicts a dance scene, not a meditative pose.
• (c) The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha: Incorrect. The Bagh Caves are Buddhist caves and this painting does not depict Hindu deities.
• (d) Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean): Incorrect. This is not the subject of the Hallisalasya painting.

Option (D) — 1, 2 and 3

• The place-value (decimal) system is one of India's most significant contributions to mathematics and was gradually adopted in epigraphy.
• The Mankani (or Sankheda) copper plates from Gujarat, dated to AD 595-596, are widely recognized as the earliest epigraphic evidence of the place-value system in India.
• By the ninth century, the place-value notation became widespread in inscriptions across India, replacing older systems.
• In Southeast Asia, Sanskrit inscriptions from as early as the seventh century show the use of the Indian place-value system, reflecting the spread of Indian mathematical knowledge.

• 1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595-596): Correct. These copper plates are the earliest confirmed epigraphic use of the decimal place-value system in India.
• 2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India: Correct. The ninth century marks the period when the place-value system became common in Indian inscriptions.
• 3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century: Correct. Indian mathematical notation, including the place-value system, spread to Southeast Asia and is attested in seventh-century Sanskrit inscriptions there.

Option (A) — 1 and 2 only

• The Harappan (Indus Valley) civilization demonstrated advanced urban planning, craft production, and scientific knowledge in standardized weights and measures.
• Spindle-whorls found in houses without spinning wheels indicate that spinning was done manually at home, making it a time-consuming, laborious domestic activity.
• The discovery of standardized weights and graduated measurement scales reflects the advanced scientific and metrological knowledge of the Harappans.
• Houses with private wells, courtyards, bathing platforms, and large rooms suggest private property ownership and individual household wealth, not a common property system.

• 1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home: Correct. The presence of spindle-whorls (manual tools) and absence of spinning wheels confirms spinning was labor-intensive and done domestically.
• 2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed: Correct. Standardized weights and graduated measurement scales demonstrate considerable scientific and mathematical knowledge.
• 3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system: Incorrect. Houses with their own wells, private courtyards, and bathing platforms suggest private property and individual household ownership, not a common property system.

Option (C) — The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.

• The Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) in Gujarat, led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, was a no-tax campaign by peasants against a 22% increase in land revenue imposed by the colonial government.
• The Eka Movement (1921-22) was a peasant movement in the Hardoi, Bahraich, and Sitapur districts of Awadh (not Varanasi/Mirzapur) against oppressive rent extraction by taluqdars and landlords.
• The Eka Movement was initially supported by Congress and Khilafat leaders like Madari Pasi but later moved beyond Congress control. The taluqdars were the oppressors, not the leaders.
• Bardoli is located in the Surat district of Gujarat, not in Saurashtra.

• (a) The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence: Incorrect. The Eka Movement initially had Congress/Khilafat involvement but later went beyond their control. Bardoli was organized by Congress leader Vallabhbhai Patel from the beginning.
• (b) The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh: Incorrect. The taluqdars were the exploiters against whom the peasants were protesting, not the leaders of the movement.
• (c) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents: Correct. Bardoli opposed the increase in government land revenue, while the Eka Movement opposed excessive rent demands by landlords.
• (d) The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts: Incorrect. It was in the Hardoi, Bahraich, and Sitapur districts of Awadh. Also, Bardoli is in Gujarat (Surat district), not Saurashtra.

Option (C) — 1 and 3 only

• The Rigveda contains references to agricultural practices including irrigation using wells, with mentions of ashma chakra (stone wheel/pulley) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) for drawing water.
• The use of draught animals like oxen for ploughing and pulling carts predates the Rigvedic period and continued during it, supporting Statement II about draught-animal power for drawing water from wells.
• Implements like parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle) mentioned in the Rigveda relate to clearing land and harvesting. These support agriculture in general but do not specifically support the statements about irrigation from wells or the use of draught-animal power to draw water.
• Information 1 directly supports both statements (well-based irrigation technology), and Information 3 supports Statement II (use of animal power), while Information 2 is about general agricultural tools, not about irrigation or draught-animal use for water.

• 1. Evidence of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water: Supports the statements. This directly supports Statement I about irrigation from wells and the technology used for drawing water.
• 2. Mention of parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle): Does not support the statements. These are land-clearing and harvesting tools that relate to general agriculture, not specifically to well irrigation or use of draught-animal power for drawing water.
• 3. History of the use of ox for ploughing and pulling carts even before the Rigveda: Supports the statements. This supports Statement II about draught-animal power being employed to draw water from wells, as the use of animal power was already established.

Option (D) — 3

• Geologists suggest that a mighty river called Indo-Brahma or Shiwalik traversed the entire longitudinal extent of the Himalayas during the Pleistocene epoch.
• The dismemberment of this river into the Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra systems is believed to have been caused by Pleistocene upheavals in the Potwar Plateau.
• The presence of closely related river dolphins, specifically of the Platanista genus, in both the Indus and Ganga river systems serves as strong biological evidence for their historical connection.

• Statement 1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda: Incorrect. The Nadi-Sukta is a hymn in the Rigveda that praises rivers but provides historical geography, not geological evidence of Pleistocene river shifts.
• Statement 2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote: Incorrect. Robert Bruce Foote is known as the father of Indian prehistory for discovering Paleolithic tools, not for exploring Pleistocene river shifts of the Sutlej and Yamuna.
• Statement 3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems: Correct. The biological distribution of closely related river dolphins in both systems strongly indicates that these rivers were once connected.

Option (A) — The meditation of the Buddha

• In early Buddhist art (aniconic phase), the Buddha was not depicted in human form but was represented through symbols.
• An empty seat or throne symbolized the Buddha's meditation, particularly his attainment of enlightenment under the Bodhi tree.
• Other symbols include the Bodhi tree (enlightenment), the Dharma chakra (First Sermon), footprints (Buddha's presence), and the stupa (Mahaparinibbana).

Option (C) — 3 only

• The ancient Vedic names of Punjab rivers and their modern equivalents are well-established in Indian history.
• Vitasta is the ancient name for Jhelum (not Chenab), Asikni is the ancient name for Chenab (not Jhelum), Parushni is the ancient name for Ravi, and Yavyavati (Vipasha) is actually the Beas but the ancient name for Beas is Vipas/Vipasha, not Yavyavati.
• The correct sequence is: Vitasta-Jhelum, Asikni-Chenab, Parushni-Ravi, Vipasha-Beas, Shutudri-Sutlej.

• 1. Vitasta - Chenab: Incorrect. Vitasta is the ancient name for the Jhelum river, not Chenab.
• 2. Asikni - Jhelum: Incorrect. Asikni is the ancient name for the Chenab river, not Jhelum.
• 3. Parushni - Ravi: Correct. Parushni is the well-established ancient Vedic name for the Ravi river.
• 4. Yavyavati - Beas: Incorrect. The ancient name for Beas is Vipasha (Hyphasis in Greek). Yavyavati is not the standard ancient name for Beas.

Option (B) — Statements 1 and 3 are correct

• The Amaravati Stupa, also known as Mahachaitya, is a ruined Buddhist monument located at Amaravati village in the Palnadu district of Andhra Pradesh.
• It was built in phases between the third century BCE and about 250 CE, largely patronized by the Satavahana and Ikshvaku dynasties.
• The Amaravati school of art is renowned for its intricate relief sculptures depicting scenes from the life of Buddha and Jataka tales using white marble.

• Statement 1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley: Correct. The Amaravati Stupa was built on the right bank of the Krishna river in the lower Krishna valley of modern day Andhra Pradesh.
• Statement 2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size: Incorrect. The Amaravati Stupa was actually larger than the Sanchi Stupa. With a base diameter of about 50 meters and a height of roughly 30 meters, it was the largest stupa in India at its zenith.
• Statement 3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia: Correct. The Amaravati style profoundly influenced later Pallava and Chola art, and its sculptures and stylistic elements were carried by monks and traders to Sri Lanka and parts of South East Asia.

Option (B) — 2 only

• The early historical period of Tamilakam was dominated by three major dynasties known as the Muvendar, which included the Cheras, Cholas, and Pandyas.
• The Sangam literature is the primary source of information regarding the political history of these three kingdoms.
• Prominent rulers are frequently mentioned in Sangam poems, providing details about their military conquests, patronage of bards, and respective dynasties.

• Pair 1. Senguttuvan and Chera: Correct. Senguttuvan, also known as Cheran Senguttuvan, was a renowned ruler of the Chera dynasty.
• Pair 2. Udiyanjeral and Chola: Incorrect. Udiyanjeral was an early king of the Chera dynasty, not the Chola dynasty.
• Pair 3. Nedunjeliyan and Pandya: Correct. Nedunjeliyan was a celebrated ruler of the Pandya dynasty, famous for his victory at Talaiyalanganam.

Option (B) — 1, 2 and 4

• After winning the Congress Presidency at Tripuri in 1939, Bose faced strong opposition from the Gandhian old guard and failed to win Gandhi's confidence, which made his functioning as president untenable.
• The Congress Left was deeply disunited. The Communists initially supported Bose but later withdrew support. The M.N. Roy group and socialists like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred maintaining Congress unity over backing Bose.
• Bose resigned from the Congress presidency in April 1939 and formed the Forward Bloc in May 1939 as a faction within the Congress to consolidate the Left.
• The Communists did initially support Bose during the Tripuri crisis, so statement 3 (that they did not support him) is incorrect in the context of the formation of the Forward Bloc.

• 1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi: Correct. Gandhi opposed Bose's re-election and his candidate Pattabhi Sitaramayya lost, but Gandhi's supporters made it impossible for Bose to function as president.
• 2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose: Correct. The Left within the Congress was fragmented and could not present a united front behind Bose.
• Statement 3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours: Incorrect. The Communists actively supported Bose during the Tripuri session and voted against the Pant resolution, standing by him longer than other left groups.
• 4. Supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose: Correct. JP and the Roy group chose to maintain Congress unity rather than back Bose's confrontation with the Gandhian leadership.

Option (A) — 2 and 3 only

• After the annexation of Awadh in 1856, the British conducted a Summary Settlement that dispossessed the taluqdars of their estates, treating them as interlopers or middlemen rather than legitimate landholders.
• The British policy aimed to establish direct revenue collection from the peasants by eliminating the taluqdari intermediary layer, based on the assumption that taluqdars were outsiders who had usurped peasant rights.
• The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates, and crucially, they were also disarmed and their forts were destroyed. They were not allowed to retain their arms and forts, making statement 1 incorrect.

• 1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts: Incorrect. The British not only dispossessed the taluqdars but also disarmed them and demolished their forts, which was a major source of resentment leading to the 1857 revolt.
• 2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders: Correct. The Summary Settlement treated taluqdars as interlopers who had illegally seized land from the peasants.
• 3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars: Correct. The British policy was to bypass the taluqdari system and collect revenue directly from cultivating peasants.

Option (D) — 1, 2 and 3

• The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 retained and extended the system of separate electorates first introduced by the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909, now extending them to Sikhs and others.
• Separate electorates were a deliberate colonial strategy to divide Indian society along communal lines and weaken the growing nationalist movement by encouraging community-based political identities.
• The provision of separate electorates and reserved seats incentivized deprived and minority communities to organize around communal identities to secure political representation, thereby creating community-based political alliances.

• 1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates: Correct. The 1919 reforms continued and expanded the separate electorate system introduced in 1909, supporting the assertion about community-based political alliances.
• 2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger: Correct. The British used communal electorates as a divide-and-rule strategy to weaken the unified nationalist movement.
• 3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates: Correct. Various communities saw separate electorates as a means to secure political representation and benefits, leading to community-based political mobilization.

Option (D) — Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

• Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur (1910-1992) was a renowned Hindustani classical vocalist from Dharwad, Karnataka.
• He was a distinguished exponent of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana, known for its emphasis on raga elaboration and complex melodic patterns.
• He was a disciple of Manji Khan and Bhurji Khan of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana and was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 1992.

Option (B) — Atharvaveda

• The term kshetra-patni meaning 'mistress of the field' is found in the Atharvaveda, indicating women's association with agricultural land in Vedic society.
• The Atharvaveda contains hymns related to everyday life, agriculture, and domestic affairs, and provides insights into the social and economic roles of women in the later Vedic period.
• This term has been interpreted by scholars as evidence that women had certain rights or connections to agricultural land in Vedic times.

Option (B) — 1 and 2

• India's LT-LEDS was presented at COP27 and outlines pathways to achieve net-zero emissions by 2070, emphasizing long-term, phased transition across sectors.
• India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December 2024 reported a decrease in GHG emissions in 2020 compared to 2019, providing empirical evidence that India is making progress on emission reduction, which supports Statement I.
• Climate-resilient development is inherently a long-term process requiring sustained, phased efforts. Statement III's emphasis on 'quick and short-term' targets contradicts the long-term approach implicit in LT-LEDS (Statement I).
• Statement III contradicts Statement I rather than complementing it, so together they cannot establish a premise of long-term sustainability.

• 1. Statement I is empirically supported by Statement II: Correct. The emission reduction data in BUR-4 provides empirical backing for the trajectory outlined in LT-LEDS.
• 2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in Statement I: Correct. LT-LEDS is a long-term strategy (targeting 2070), while Statement III emphasizes quick, short-term targets, which is contradictory.
• 3. Statement I and Statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability: Incorrect. Since Statement III focuses on short-term targets and contradicts Statement I's long-term approach, they cannot together establish a premise of long-term sustainability.

Option (B) — 1 and 2

• The Western Hoolock Gibbon (Hoolock hoolock) is found in northeast India and is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List. Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Assam is specifically dedicated to this species.
• Gibbons are known as the greatest brachiators among primates. They have long arms and specialized shoulder joints that allow them to swing efficiently between trees at high speed.
• Gibbons are the smallest apes and have a slender, lightweight build, very unlike gorillas which are large and heavily built. This lightweight build is precisely what enables their agile brachiation.

• 1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the IUCN Red List: Correct. Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Assam is home to Western Hoolock Gibbons, and they are classified as Endangered by IUCN.
• 2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees: Correct. Gibbons are the most skilled brachiators among primates, with long arms and ball-and-socket wrist joints enabling efficient arboreal locomotion.
• 3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers: Incorrect. Gibbons are the smallest of the apes with a slender, lightweight body. They are nothing like gorillas in build.

Option (D) — 3 only

• Mangroves serve as natural bio-shields against cyclones, storm surges, and tsunamis by absorbing wave energy and reducing coastal erosion. They are critical for climate resilience.
• Mangroves provide livelihood support to coastal communities through fisheries (serving as nursery habitats for fish and shrimp), timber, and non-timber forest products.
• Mangroves are not used for paddy cultivation in saline belts, nor do their roots convert seawater to freshwater. Mangrove roots are salt-tolerant (not salt-sensitive) and have specialized mechanisms to exclude or excrete salt.
• Mangroves store blue carbon (carbon in coastal and marine ecosystems) at rates significantly higher than terrestrial forests, making them vital for climate change mitigation.

• 1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts: Incorrect. While mangroves do reduce tidal energy, they do not store freshwater for paddy cultivation. Mangrove zones are saline environments unsuitable for paddy farming.
• 2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones: Incorrect. Mangrove roots are salt-tolerant, not salt-sensitive. They do not filter seawater into freshwater, and mangroves are not used to convert coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.
• 3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities: Correct. Mangroves act as natural coastal defenses and support livelihoods through fisheries, timber, and other resources.

Option (D) — 3 only

• Vizhinjam International Seaport, located near Thiruvananthapuram in Kerala, is India's first deep-water container trans-shipment port. It has a natural depth of over 20 meters, which can accommodate the largest container vessels.
• Currently, about 75% of India's trans-shipment cargo is routed through foreign ports like Colombo, Singapore, and Dubai. Vizhinjam aims to capture a significant share of this trans-shipment traffic, thereby retaining revenue domestically.
• Vizhinjam is strategically located just 10 nautical miles from the major international shipping route connecting Europe, the Persian Gulf, and East Asia, giving it a competitive advantage.
• The port is not designed as an exclusively domestic cargo hub, nor is it focused primarily on passenger cruise tourism or heritage shipping.

• 1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations: Incorrect. Vizhinjam is designed as an international trans-shipment hub, not exclusively a domestic cargo hub. It involves collaboration with Adani Ports and international shipping lines.
• 2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala's profile as a maritime heritage destination: Incorrect. The primary focus of Vizhinjam is container trans-shipment, not cruise tourism or heritage shipping.
• 3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade: Correct. This accurately describes the strategic rationale behind Vizhinjam, which aims to reduce India's dependence on Colombo and other foreign trans-shipment hubs.

Option (C) — Sutlej

• The Sutlej River originates near Lake Rakshastal (close to Lake Mansarovar) on the Tibetan Plateau and has an antecedent drainage system, meaning it predates the Himalayan uplift and has cut through the rising mountains.
• The Sutlej flows through three countries: China (Tibet), India (Himachal Pradesh and Punjab), and Pakistan (Punjab province), where it joins the Chenab to eventually form the Panjnad.
• The Sutlej is a crucial irrigation river, feeding the Bhakra-Nangal Dam and extensive canal systems in Punjab (both Indian and Pakistani sides), including the Indira Gandhi Canal system indirectly.
• Unlike the Brahmaputra or Indus, the Sutlej does not form a significant delta or distributary system. It merges into the Chenab River in Pakistan before reaching the Indus.

Option (C) — Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect

• India comprises 28 States and 8 Union Territories with a diverse array of internal and international boundaries.
• The length and distribution of these borders depend on geographical layout and historical territorial divisions.
• Knowledge of India's political geography is essential to accurately map out state borders and international frontiers.

• Statement 1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States: Correct. Uttar Pradesh borders eight states, which are Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Bihar, along with the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
• Statement 2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States: Incorrect. West Bengal shares the longest international border among Indian states, primarily due to its highly convoluted and lengthy boundary with Bangladesh.
• Statement 3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State: Incorrect. Both Sikkim and Meghalaya share their boundaries with only one other Indian state. Sikkim is bounded only by West Bengal internally, while Meghalaya is bounded only by Assam.

Option (A) — 1 only

• Amur Falcons are long distance migratory raptors that travel annually from their breeding grounds in East Asia to wintering grounds in Southern Africa.
• Doyang Lake in Nagaland serves as a crucial stopover site for millions of these birds, earning the state the title of Falcon Capital of the World.
• A massive community led conservation effort successfully ended the local practice of hunting these birds, transforming the villagers into dedicated protectors.

• Statement 1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds: Correct. The transition of local communities around Doyang Lake from hunting to protecting the falcons is a globally recognized conservation success.
• Statement 2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites: Incorrect. Advanced tracking technologies like satellite tags are used by researchers to map and study migration routes, but they do not guide the birds, which rely on natural navigation.
• Statement 3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes: Incorrect. Amur Falcons are strictly migratory and only visit India temporarily during their transit to Africa, not as permanent residents.

Option (D) — 3 only

• The Rainfed Area Development (RAD) programme under NMSA aims to improve the quality of life of farmers in rainfed areas by promoting Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) that combine crops, livestock, fishery, forestry, and other activities.
• RAD focuses on diversification rather than monoculture, and it targets rainfed areas specifically, not irrigated regions.
• The key objective is to enhance productivity, minimize climatic risks, and provide livelihood diversification through sustainable farming practices in rainfed areas.

• 1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas: Incorrect. RAD promotes diversified Integrated Farming Systems, not monoculture. Monoculture increases vulnerability to climate risks, which is contrary to RAD's objectives.
• 2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions: Incorrect. RAD is specifically designed for rainfed areas, not irrigated regions. It does not focus on increasing cultivation of any single crop in irrigated areas.
• 3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS): Correct. This is the core objective of RAD, which uses IFS to build resilience and improve livelihoods in rainfed areas.

Option (C) — Both 1 and 2

• Eri Silk, also known as Ahimsa silk or peace silk, is produced primarily in Assam and other northeastern states of India. It is extracted without killing the silkworm, making it appealing to eco-conscious markets.
• Oeko-Tex certification is an international testing and certification system for textiles, ensuring that products are free from harmful substances and meet strict environmental and safety standards.
• Obtaining Oeko-Tex certification enables Indian Eri Silk exporters to access premium international markets that demand chemical-free, sustainably produced textiles, while also confirming the silk meets international quality and safety benchmarks.

• 1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products: Correct. Oeko-Tex certification is widely recognized in premium textile markets and signals that the product is free from harmful chemicals.
• 2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets: Correct. The Oeko-Tex certification specifically tests for harmful substances and verifies compliance with international safety and environmental standards.

Option (B) — 1 and 3

• The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and then to the Arabian Sea (part of the Indian Ocean). Countries whose ports are located within the Persian Gulf must pass through the Strait of Hormuz to reach the Indian Ocean.
• Bahrain is an island nation in the Persian Gulf and its ships must pass through the Strait of Hormuz to reach the Indian Ocean.
• Qatar is a peninsula projecting into the Persian Gulf, and its ships also must pass through the Strait of Hormuz to access the Indian Ocean.
• Syria is located on the eastern Mediterranean coast, and its ships would exit through the Suez Canal or other Mediterranean routes, not through the Strait of Hormuz. Egypt is also a Mediterranean/Red Sea country and does not need to use the Strait of Hormuz.

• 1. Bahrain: Correct. Bahrain is situated in the Persian Gulf and ships from Bahrain must transit through the Strait of Hormuz to reach the Indian Ocean.
• 2. Syria: Incorrect. Syria's ports are on the Mediterranean Sea. Ships from Syria would not pass through the Strait of Hormuz to reach the Indian Ocean.
• 3. Qatar: Correct. Qatar is located on the Persian Gulf and ships must pass through the Strait of Hormuz to access the Indian Ocean.
• 4. Egypt: Incorrect. Egypt borders the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea. Ships from Egypt can access the Indian Ocean via the Red Sea and the Bab el-Mandeb strait, not through the Strait of Hormuz.

Option (A) — Ecuador

• Tungurahua Volcano is an active stratovolcano located in the Cordillera Oriental of the Andes in central Ecuador, rising to about 5,023 metres.
• The name Tungurahua comes from the Quichua words meaning 'Throat of Fire'. It lies within the Sangay National Park region and is part of Ecuador's Pacific Ring of Fire chain.
• In 2025, UNESCO designated the Tungurahua Volcano area as a Global Geopark, recognising its volcanic geology, biodiversity, and cultural heritage of indigenous communities like the Kichwa and Salasaka.
• UNESCO Global Geoparks are unified geographical areas where sites of international geological significance are managed with a focus on protection, education, and sustainable development.

• Option (a) Ecuador: Correct. Tungurahua Volcano lies in the Tungurahua Province of central Ecuador in the Andean region.
• Option (b) Peru: Incorrect. Peru has volcanoes like Misti and Ubinas, but not Tungurahua.
• Option (c) Bolivia: Incorrect. Bolivian volcanoes include Sajama and Uturuncu, not Tungurahua.
• Option (d) Colombia: Incorrect. Colombia hosts volcanoes such as Nevado del Ruiz and Galeras, but Tungurahua is not located there.

Option (B) — Madhav National Park: Tiger Reserve with Sakhya Sagar

• Madhav National Park is located in the Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh, part of the upper Vindhyan hills.
• It was notified as India's 58th Tiger Reserve in 2025, becoming the ninth tiger reserve in Madhya Pradesh.
• The park contains two artificial lakes, Sakhya Sagar and Madhav Sagar, created by damming the Manier river. Sakhya Sagar was designated a Ramsar Site in 2022.
• The park lies entirely within Madhya Pradesh and is not shared with any other state.

• Statement 1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025: Correct. Madhav National Park was officially notified as a Tiger Reserve in March 2025.
• Statement 2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park: Correct. Sakhya Sagar lake, declared a Ramsar Site in 2022, lies inside Madhav National Park.
• Statement 3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan: Incorrect. The park lies entirely within Madhya Pradesh (Shivpuri district).

Option (B) — Statements 1 and 2 only correct

• The Andaman and Nicobar Islands experience a humid tropical coastal climate due to their location in the Bay of Bengal near the equator.
• Temperatures remain fairly uniform throughout the year, ranging between 23°C and 31°C, with high humidity.
• The islands receive rainfall from both the South-west monsoon (May to September) and the North-east monsoon (November to December).
• Annual rainfall is around 3000 mm, with maximum precipitation occurring between May and December, not December to May.

• Statement 1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate: Correct. The islands lie close to the equator and are surrounded by sea, giving them a warm, humid tropical maritime climate.
• Statement 2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon: Correct. Unlike most of mainland India, the islands receive rainfall from both monsoon systems due to their location in the Bay of Bengal.
• Statement 3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May: Incorrect. Maximum precipitation occurs between May and December; December to May is the relatively drier period.

Option (B) — Statements 1 and 2 are correct

• The Peninsular Block is one of the oldest and most stable landmasses of India, formed mainly of Archaean gneisses and schists.
• Its relief includes residual mountains, low plateaus, broad shallow valleys, and rounded hills shaped by prolonged erosion.
• The western coast of India shows evidence of submergence, while the eastern coast is largely an emergent coast.
• Peninsular rivers are mostly mature, flowing through shallow valleys with low gradients, unlike Himalayan rivers.

• Statement 1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity: Correct. The western coast is a submerged coast, evidenced by features like the Gulf of Khambhat and Gulf of Kachchh.
• Statement 2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as Veliconda and Mahendragiri hills: Correct. These are residual hills of the Eastern Ghats within the Peninsular Block.
• Statement 3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers: Incorrect. Peninsular rivers flow through broad, shallow valleys as they are in a mature stage; deep V-shaped valleys are characteristic of Himalayan rivers.

Option (B) — Relationships 1 and 2 are correct

• The Sagarmala Programme, launched in 2015 by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, aims at port-led development by harnessing India's 7,500 km coastline, 14,500 km of potentially navigable waterways, and strategic location on key international maritime trade routes.
• Its pillars include port modernisation, port connectivity enhancement, port-linked industrialisation, coastal community development, and coastal shipping and inland waterways transport.
• Sagarmala 2.0 envisions transforming India into a global maritime hub with focus on shipbuilding, ship repair, recycling, green shipping, and innovation, aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047.
• India's improved rankings in the Logistics Performance Index and growth in coastal shipping tonnage validate the programme's outcomes.

• Relationship 1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of strategies in Statement I: Correct. The observed growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping and improved port rankings demonstrates the success of the port-led, cost-effective infrastructure vision in Statement I.
• Relationship 2. Statement III extends objectives of Statement I into a future innovation framework: Correct. Sagarmala 2.0 builds upon the original port-led growth model by adding innovation, sustainability, and long-term national vision elements.
• Relationship 3. Statement I contradicts Statement III: Incorrect. Statement I provides the foundational infrastructure-based approach upon which Statement III's innovation-driven vision is built; they are complementary, not contradictory.

Option (B) — Statements 1 and 3 are correct

• Rhynchostylis retusa, commonly known as the Foxtail orchid, is an exotic blooming orchid belonging to the Vanda alliance.
• It is easily identified by its long, drooping inflorescence resembling a bushy fox tail, featuring numerous pink and white flowers.
• The plant is highly revered in Assamese culture, known locally as Kopou Phool, and is an essential adornment for dancers during the Bohag Bihu festival.

• Statement 1. It is an epiphytic orchid: Correct. The Foxtail orchid is an epiphytic plant, meaning it grows harmlessly on the surface of other plants or trees and absorbs moisture from the air.
• Statement 2. The species is endemic to North-east India: Incorrect. It is not endemic to this region. It has a very wide distribution spanning the Indian Subcontinent, China, Malaysia, Indonesia, and the Philippines.
• Statement 3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam: Correct. It holds high cultural and ecological significance and is officially recognized as the State flower of both Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.

Option (C) — Burial mounds of Ahom royals and nobles

• Moidams are the mound-burial system of the Tai-Ahom dynasty that ruled Assam for nearly 600 years (1228 to 1826 CE).
• Located at Charaideo in Assam, the Moidams were inscribed as India's 43rd UNESCO World Heritage Site in July 2024, becoming the first cultural property from the Northeast to receive this status.
• Each Moidam consists of a vault or chamber where the deceased royal was entombed with belongings, covered by a hemispherical earthen mound topped with a brick or stone structure.
• The site reflects the Tai-Ahom belief system of ancestor worship and resembles the royal burial traditions seen in Egyptian pyramids and Chinese imperial tombs.

• Statement 1. They acted as army fortresses: Incorrect. Moidams were never used as military fortresses; they were sacred funerary structures.
• Statement 2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles: Incorrect. They had no recreational function and were strictly burial sites.
• Statement 3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles: Correct. Moidams served as tumuli or burial mounds for Ahom kings, queens, and nobles.
• Statement 4. They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles: Incorrect. They were not associated with military training or drills.

Option (B) — Better production, nutrition, environment and life

• The FAO Strategic Framework 2022-2031 is built on the vision of the Four Betters: Better Production, Better Nutrition, Better Environment, and Better Life, leaving no one behind.
• Blue Transformation is FAO's vision to enhance the role of aquatic food systems in feeding the growing global population, while ensuring sustainability of aquatic resources and equitable livelihoods.
• At the UN Ocean Conference (UNOC) 2025/2026 in France (Nice), FAO highlighted sustainable fisheries and aquaculture as central to achieving SDG 14 (Life Below Water).
• Blue Transformation rests on three pillars: sustainable aquaculture expansion, effective fisheries management, and upgraded aquatic value chains.

• Option (a) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean: Incorrect. The fourth 'Better' is 'Better Life', not 'Better Ocean'.
• Option (b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life: Correct. These are the official Four Betters under FAO's Strategic Framework guiding Blue Transformation.
• Option (c) Better coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life: Incorrect. 'Better coral reefs' is not part of the Four Betters; the correct term is 'Better Production'.
• Option (d) Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation: Incorrect. Neither 'Better estuaries' nor 'Better mangrove vegetation' figure in FAO's Four Betters.

Option (B) — Statements 1 and 3 only are correct

• Lake Turkana is an endorheic alkaline lake located in the Kenyan Rift Valley, with its northern tip extending into Ethiopia.
• It is the world's largest permanent desert lake and the largest alkaline lake on Earth.
• The lake is famous for its blue-green hue caused by algae, earning it the nickname 'Jade Sea'.
• Lake Turkana National Parks were designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1997 for their unique ecosystems and fossil sites linked to early human evolution.

• Statement 1: It is the largest desert lake in the world: Correct. Lake Turkana is recognised as the world's largest permanent desert lake.
• Statement 2: The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert: Incorrect. The lake lies mainly in Kenya, with a small portion in Ethiopia, not in South Sudan or near the Sahara.
• Statement 3: The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the 'Jade Sea': Correct. Its national parks are UNESCO listed and the lake is popularly called the Jade Sea.

Option (C) — Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project

• REDD+ is a framework created by the UNFCCC to guide activities in the forest sector that reduce emissions from deforestation and forest degradation.
• The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project is located in the state of Meghalaya and engages local indigenous communities in forest conservation and restoration efforts.
• It holds the distinction of being India's first REDD+ project to be certified under the Plan Vivo Standard, which is a framework specifically designed for community based payments for ecosystem services.

• Option A. Uttarakhand REDD+ project: Incorrect. It is not recognized as the first Plan Vivo certified REDD+ project in India.
• Option B. ICFRE and ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North Eastern Himalayas: Incorrect. Though collaborative efforts exist in the Himalayas, this is not the first Plan Vivo certified REDD+ project.
• Option C. Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project: Correct. This initiative in Meghalaya was the first community led REDD+ project in India to achieve Plan Vivo certification.
• Option D. Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project: Incorrect. This is not the first Plan Vivo certified REDD+ project in India.

Option (C) — 1 and 2 only

• Genetic medicines are therapeutic agents that work by correcting, compensating for, or silencing faulty genes responsible for diseases. Examples include gene therapy, antisense oligonucleotides, and RNA interference therapies.
• Engineered viruses (viral vectors like adeno-associated viruses) and lipid nanoparticles (used in mRNA vaccines and therapies) serve as delivery vehicles or carriers for genetic medicines.
• Genetic medicines do not alter the entire DNA sequence. They target specific genes or gene segments that are responsible for a disease, making precise and targeted modifications rather than changing the whole genome.

• 1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease: Correct. This is the fundamental principle of genetic medicine, which aims to fix or compensate for defective genes causing diseases.
• 2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine: Correct. Viral vectors (e.g., AAV, lentivirus) and lipid nanoparticles are well-established delivery mechanisms for genetic medicines.
• 3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence: Incorrect. Genetic medicines target only specific faulty genes or segments, not the entire DNA sequence. Technologies like CRISPR make precise edits at targeted locations.

Option (B) — 1 and 2 only

• Large Language Models (LLMs) like GPT work by predicting the next token/word in a sequence. They assign probability distributions over possible next words and typically select based on highest probability (or use sampling strategies).
• LLMs are trained through mathematical optimization processes (gradient descent, backpropagation) that minimize a loss function, which measures prediction errors between the model output and actual training data.
• LLMs are known to produce biased outputs because they are trained on large corpora of text data from the internet that contain inherent biases related to gender, race, culture, and other factors. Bias in training data leads to biased outputs.

• 1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability: Correct. This is the core mechanism of autoregressive language models, which generate text by predicting the most likely next token.
• 2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors: Correct. During training, LLMs use optimization algorithms like stochastic gradient descent to minimize the cross-entropy loss (prediction error).
• 3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs: Incorrect. LLMs are well-documented to produce biased outputs reflecting biases present in their training data. This is a widely recognized limitation of current LLM technology.

Option (C) — 1 and 2 only

• Stealth technology is designed to make aircraft, ships, and other military vehicles less visible to radar, infrared, and other detection methods. A key feature is minimizing the radar cross-section (RCS) through shape design and Radar Absorbing Materials (RAM).
• Stealth objects can potentially be detected using specific radar frequencies, particularly lower frequencies (VHF and UHF bands). Low-frequency radars have wavelengths comparable to aircraft dimensions, making stealth shaping less effective.
• Metamaterials in stealth applications are designed to reduce scattering of electromagnetic radiation, not increase it. The goal is to redirect or absorb radar waves rather than scatter them, making the object less detectable.

• 1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material: Correct. Stealth design combines geometric shaping to deflect radar waves and RAM coatings to absorb radar energy, both reducing RCS.
• 2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies: Correct. Low-frequency radars (VHF/UHF) can detect stealth aircraft because stealth shaping is optimized against higher-frequency radars. Bistatic and multistatic radar systems also help.
• 3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation: Incorrect. Metamaterials in stealth are used to reduce or redirect scattering, not increase it. Increasing scattering would make the object more visible to radar, defeating the purpose of stealth.

Option (B) — 2 and 3 only

• Black boxes in aircraft consist of two units: the Flight Data Recorder (FDR) which records flight parameters, and the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) which records audio from the cockpit. Together they record both voice and flight data.
• Black boxes carry an Underwater Locator Beacon (ULB) that emits ultrasonic pulses (at 37.5 kHz), not red light pulses. These acoustic pings can be detected underwater for up to 30 days or more to help locate submerged wreckage.
• The crash-survivable memory units of black boxes are encased in robust materials such as stainless steel or titanium to withstand extreme impact, fire, and deep-sea pressure.

• 1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection: Incorrect. Black boxes use Underwater Locator Beacons (ULBs) that emit ultrasonic acoustic pulses, not red light pulses. Light would be ineffective for underwater detection at depth.
• 2. They record both the cockpit voice and flight data: Correct. Modern aircraft carry both a Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) and a Flight Data Recorder (FDR), collectively known as black boxes, recording audio and hundreds of flight parameters.
• 3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium: Correct. The memory units are housed in crash-survivable enclosures made of stainless steel or titanium to protect data from extreme conditions including high temperatures, pressure, and impact.

Option (B) — 2 and 3 only

• Green hydrogen is specifically produced through electrolysis of water using electricity generated from renewable energy sources such as solar, wind, or hydropower. This makes it a zero-carbon hydrogen production method.
• Hydrogen produced from natural gas reforming combined with Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS) is classified as blue hydrogen, not green hydrogen. The distinction is important: green hydrogen involves no fossil fuels in its production.
• India's National Green Hydrogen Mission, approved in January 2023, targets production of 5 MMT of green hydrogen per annum by 2030 and aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.

• 1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS): Incorrect. This describes blue hydrogen, not green hydrogen. Green hydrogen uses renewable energy-powered electrolysis with no involvement of natural gas or fossil fuels.
• 2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy: Correct. This is the defining characteristic of green hydrogen. Water is split into hydrogen and oxygen using renewable electricity, resulting in zero carbon emissions.
• 3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030: Correct. The Mission document states the target of nearly 50 MMT of annual GHG emissions abatement by 2030 along with 5 MMT annual green hydrogen production capacity.

Option (C) — 1 and 2 only

• IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre) was established in 2020 as an autonomous body under the Department of Space to promote, handhold, and authorize private sector participation in India's space activities.
• Agnikul Cosmos successfully launched its Agnibaan SOrTeD rocket in May 2024, which used a single-piece 3D-printed semi-cryogenic engine, making it the world's first such flight.
• Skyroot Aerospace developed and launched the Vikram-S rocket using solid-fuel propulsion. It has not developed liquid fuel for GSLV. GSLV uses cryogenic engines developed by ISRO.

• 1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities: Correct. IN-SPACe was formed in 2020 specifically to act as a single-window agency to facilitate and authorize private participation in space activities.
• 2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world's first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine: Correct. Agnikul Cosmos achieved this milestone with its Agnibaan SOrTeD mission, using a single-piece 3D-printed semi-cryogenic engine.
• 3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV: Incorrect. Skyroot Aerospace is a private startup that launched the Vikram-S suborbital rocket using solid propulsion. It has not developed liquid fuel for ISRO's GSLV. GSLV's cryogenic upper stage is developed by ISRO itself.

Option (B) — 2 and 3 only

• Drone swarms typically use standard communication frequencies such as UHF, VHF, Wi-Fi, or other radio frequency bands for communication, not the Terahertz band, which is still largely experimental and not used in practical drone operations.
• Individual drones in a swarm communicate with each other using inter-drone communication protocols, enabling decentralized coordination and collective behavior without relying solely on a central command.
• GPS Spoofing is indeed a commonly used counter-drone technique where false GPS signals are sent to mislead drones, causing them to lose navigation or land in unintended locations.

• 1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre: Incorrect. Drone swarms use conventional radio frequency bands (such as UHF, VHF, or ISM bands) for communication. Terahertz communication is still in experimental stages and is not used in drone swarm operations.
• 2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm: Correct. A key feature of drone swarms is inter-drone communication, which enables decentralized decision-making and coordinated behavior among the drones.
• 3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack: Correct. GPS spoofing involves broadcasting fake GPS signals to confuse drone navigation systems, and it is recognized as one of the counter-drone techniques used against swarm attacks.

Option (B) — 2 and 3 only

• The GenomeIndia Project is an indigenous initiative and is not part of the international Human Genome Project, which was completed in 2003. GenomeIndia is a separate project focused specifically on mapping genetic diversity within the Indian population.
• The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) under the Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India, and is coordinated by the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bangalore, along with several partner institutions.
• The primary aim of the GenomeIndia Project is to create a comprehensive reference genome database of the Indian population by sequencing genomes of thousands of individuals from diverse ethnic and linguistic backgrounds across India.

• 1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project: Incorrect. The Human Genome Project was an international effort completed in 2003. The GenomeIndia Project is an independent Indian initiative launched to study genetic variations specific to the Indian population.
• 2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India: Correct. DBT is the primary funding agency for the GenomeIndia Project.
• 3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population: Correct. The project aims to sequence 10,000 Indian genomes to build a reference database capturing the genetic diversity of India's diverse population groups.

Option (C) — Both 1 and 2

• The National Quantum Mission (NQM) was approved by the Union Cabinet in April 2023 with a total outlay of Rs 6,003.65 crore for the period 2023-2031.
• One of the key objectives of NQM is to develop intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits in 8 years, using superconducting and photonic technology platforms.
• The mission envisages setting up four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in top academic and national R&D institutions focusing on Quantum Computing, Quantum Communication, Quantum Sensing & Metrology, and Quantum Materials & Devices.

• 1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits: Correct. NQM targets developing quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits within 8 years as one of its key deliverables.
• 2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India: Correct. The mission plans to establish four T-Hubs in leading academic and R&D institutions, each focusing on a specific area of quantum technology.

Option (B) — 2 and 3 only

• India's Deep Ocean Mission was launched by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), not the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. It was approved in June 2021 with a budget of Rs 4,077 crore for a 5-year period.
• Matsya-6000 is a manned submersible designed to carry 3 crew members to a depth of 6,000 metres for deep-sea exploration, mineral resource assessment, and biodiversity studies.
• Samudrayaan is the flagship project under the Deep Ocean Mission, involving the development of a manned submersible (Matsya-6000) for deep ocean exploration.

• 1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India: Incorrect. The Deep Ocean Mission was launched by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), not the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
• 2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration: Correct. Matsya-6000 is designed as a manned submersible capable of carrying a crew of 3 persons to depths of 6,000 metres.
• 3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission: Correct. Samudrayaan is a key component of the Deep Ocean Mission, focused on developing manned deep-ocean submersible capabilities.

Option (C) — Accountability

• Accountability in public administration means being answerable for one's actions and decisions, especially regarding public welfare and ethical conduct.
• Mr. X reported quality compromise to the vigilance authority and halted the contract, demonstrating his responsibility to ensure citizen welfare despite pressure from vested interests.
• Esprit de corps refers to team spirit, equity to fairness, and delegation to assigning authority. None of these fit as well as accountability.

• (a) Esprit de corps: Incorrect. This refers to group morale and unity, not individual ethical reporting.
• (b) Equity: Incorrect. This refers to fairness and impartiality in treatment, not whistleblowing on quality issues.
• (c) Accountability: Correct. Mr. X held the private provider accountable and acted responsibly by reporting to vigilance authority.
• (d) Delegation: Incorrect. This refers to assigning tasks/authority to subordinates, unrelated to the scenario.

Option (A) — 1, 3 and 4 only

• Effective conflict resolution in multi-ethnic contexts requires acknowledging cultural sensitivities before proposing technical solutions.
• Multi-stakeholder dialogue platforms are essential tools for building consensus and de-escalating tensions.
• Independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessments provide evidence-based foundations for transparent decision-making.
• Overriding the concerns of a tribal community without consultation violates principles of inclusive governance and tribal rights.

• 1. Acknowledging cultural concerns first: Correct. Recognizing sacred land concerns builds trust and is foundational to mediation.
• 2. Moving ahead without delay overriding tribal sentiments: Incorrect. This dismisses legitimate tribal rights and would escalate rather than resolve the conflict.
• 3. Multi-stakeholder dialogue platform: Correct. Inclusive dialogue helps de-escalate tensions and build mutual understanding.
• 4. Independent ESIA with transparent sharing: Correct. Evidence-based and transparent assessment facilitates informed decision-making by all parties.

Option (C) — 2 and 3 only

• When dealing with unproven but credible concerns about a contractor, a balanced approach is needed that protects public interest without premature public disclosure.
• Limited disclosure to an oversight committee ensures institutional checks while avoiding potential defamation from unproven allegations.
• Recommending removal from the shortlist is a prudent protective measure for project integrity.
• Immediate public disclosure of unproven allegations could be legally problematic and unnecessarily damage reputations.

• 1. Immediately disclose to public: Incorrect. Since allegations are unproven, immediate public disclosure could be premature, legally risky, and irresponsible.
• 2. Recommend removing contractor from shortlist: Correct. This protects project integrity as a precautionary measure through proper channels.
• 3. Propose limited disclosure to oversight committee: Correct. This balances transparency with prudence by using institutional mechanisms for review.

Option (D) — Only the view of Y is correct

• Article 13 of the Indian Constitution declares that all laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights shall be void.
• Under Article 13 clause 3, the term law is defined very broadly to include any Ordinance, order, bye law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law.
• Since custom and usage are explicitly mentioned in the Constitution, the refusal by X to accept this fact makes the overall view of X incorrect.

• Option A: Incorrect. X is wrong in the interpretation that custom or usage is excluded from the definition of law.
• Option B: Incorrect. The view of Y is actually correct because Article 13 explicitly includes custom or usage.
• Option C: Incorrect. Both cannot be correct because X does not agree with the valid constitutional provision pointed out by Y.
• Option D: Correct. Only the view of Y is correct as Y rightly stated that custom or usage having the force of law is included under Article 13.

Option (B) — There is no correct statement.

• Article 393 specifies: 'This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India,' making Statement 1 incorrect.
• Article 395 explicitly repeals the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935, making Statement 2 incorrect.
• Article 394 explicitly mentions 'the twenty-sixth day of January, 1950' as the date of commencement for remaining provisions, making Statement 3 incorrect.

• 1. No Article specifies the name 'Constitution of India': Incorrect. Article 393 provides this name.
• 2. No Article specifies repeal of Indian Independence Act 1947 and GoI Act 1935: Incorrect. Article 395 explicitly repeals both.
• 3. No Article mentions 26th January 1950 as commencement date: Incorrect. Article 394 explicitly mentions this date.

Option (B) — 2 only

• The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act was passed in 2016, not 2018. It received Presidential assent on December 27, 2016, and came into effect on April 19, 2017.
• Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign) was launched in 2015 and focuses on three pillars: built environment accessibility, transportation system accessibility, and ICT (Information and Communication Technology) ecosystem accessibility.
• The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) was set up under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. It provides financial assistance and skill development to Persons with Disabilities.

• 1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act was passed in 2018: Incorrect. The Act was passed in 2016, not 2018. While it does mandate reservation in education and employment and places duties on governments for accessibility, the year mentioned is wrong.
• 2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for PwDs across three key domains. built infrastructure, transport systems and ICT: Correct. These are the three pillars of the Accessible India Campaign.
• 3. NDFDC is set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company: Incorrect. NDFDC functions under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

Option (A) — There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

• The administration of Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram is covered under the Sixth Schedule (not the Fifth Schedule) of the Constitution. The Fifth Schedule deals with administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than the four northeastern states.
• Under the Income Tax Act, members of Scheduled Tribes residing in specified areas (such as those in the Sixth Schedule areas, or states like Nagaland, Manipur, etc.) are entitled to exemption from income tax on certain incomes under Section 10(26).
• Article 243D of the Constitution provides for reservation of seats for SCs and STs in Panchayats, and further provides that not less than one-third of the total seats reserved for SCs/STs shall be reserved for women belonging to those categories.

• 1. Provisions regarding the administration of Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule: Incorrect. These are covered under the Sixth Schedule, not the Fifth Schedule.
• 2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes: Correct. Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act provides tax exemptions to members of Scheduled Tribes in specified areas.
• 3. The Constitution provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to SCs and STs: Correct. Article 243D(2) read with 243D(3) provides for reservation for women within the SC/ST reserved seats in Panchayats.

Option (C) — Only one correct statement

• The Question Hour is the first hour of a sitting session of the Parliament of India devoted to questions raised by Members of Parliament.
• Parliamentary questions are primarily categorized into Starred, Unstarred, and Short Notice questions.
• These questions are vital tools for Members to hold the executive accountable and seek information on matters of public importance.

• Statement 1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House: Incorrect. An unstarred question is one for which a written answer is desired by the Member.
• Statement 2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer: Incorrect. A starred question requires an oral answer in the House and is distinguished by an asterisk mark.
• Statement 3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question: Correct. Because the reply to an unstarred question is laid on the table in a written format, it is not possible to ask supplementary questions.

Option (D) — There is no correct statement.

• The Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes consists of 30 members: 20 elected by Lok Sabha and 10 elected by Rajya Sabha (not the reverse as stated in Statement 2).
• The Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha, not the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• No Minister can be a member of this Committee. There is no exception for the Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment.
• The members of the Committee hold office for a term of one year, not two years.

• 1. The Chairperson is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha: Incorrect. The Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
• 2. Twenty members are elected by Rajya Sabha and ten by Lok Sabha: Incorrect. It is the reverse: 20 members from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha.
• 3. No Minister except the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment is eligible: Incorrect. No Minister at all is eligible to be a member of this Committee, without any exception.
• 4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years: Incorrect. The term is one year, not two years.

Option (B) — 1 and 2 only

• Mission Sudarshan Chakra is an initiative by the Indian Air Force (IAF) aimed at enhancing India's integrated air defence, ballistic missile defence, and aerial offensive capabilities.
• The mission is designed to bolster rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy in the face of evolving security threats.
• The mission is a military/defence initiative focused on air defence and offensive capabilities, not a civilian public security shield covering public places. Statement 3 incorrectly characterizes it as a nationwide public places security shield by 2035.

• 1. It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities: Correct. This accurately describes the core objectives of Mission Sudarshan Chakra.
• 2. This Mission is designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy: Correct. The mission aims at strengthening India's defence posture and strategic autonomy.
• 3. One of the aims is to cover all public places by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035: Incorrect. Mission Sudarshan Chakra is a military defence initiative and does not aim to provide a security shield for all public places.

Option (D) — 3 only

• Maitri Setu was built over the Feni river and connects Sabroom in Tripura (India) with Ramgarh in Bangladesh, not the other way around as stated in Statement 1.
• Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Nepal (Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand with Baitadi district of Nepal), not Myanmar.
• Mechi bridge connects Panitanki Bypass in India (West Bengal) with Kakarvitta in Nepal, which is correctly stated in Statement 3.

• 1. Maitri Setu built over Feni river connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh: Incorrect. The locations are swapped. Sabroom is in India (Tripura) and Ramgarh is in Bangladesh.
• 2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar: Incorrect. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India (Uttarakhand) with Nepal, not Myanmar.
• 3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal: Correct. This bridge over the Mechi river connects these two locations.

Option (C) — 1 only

• Under BNSS 2023 (Section 173), a Zero FIR can be filed at any police station regardless of the territorial jurisdiction where the cognizable offence was committed. The FIR is then transferred to the jurisdictional police station.
• Zero FIR applies specifically to cognizable offences. Statement 1 mentions non-cognizable offences as well, but under BNSS Section 173, Zero FIR provisions have been formalized primarily for cognizable offences. However, the BNSS text does allow filing at any station.
• The requirement to furnish information electronically is not obligatory under Zero FIR provisions. It is a facility that may be available but is not mandatory for the informant.
• The preliminary enquiry provision under BNSS relates to offences punishable with 3 to 7 years, but the officer must transfer the Zero FIR to the competent jurisdiction. The OIC of the station where Zero FIR is lodged does not initiate preliminary enquiry with permission of competent authority in the manner described.

• 1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station even though the place of commission of a cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station: Correct. This is the fundamental principle of Zero FIR under BNSS 2023.
• 2. The Officer-in-Charge where Zero FIR has been lodged may, with permission of competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry: Incorrect. The Zero FIR must be transferred to the police station having jurisdiction. The preliminary enquiry provisions operate differently.
• 3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically: Incorrect. Electronic filing is a facility, not an obligation under Zero FIR provisions.

Option (A) — 1

• Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) coordinates between various law enforcement agencies on economic intelligence matters, but it falls under the Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue), not the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) investigates complex corporate frauds, but it comes under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not the Ministry of Finance.
• CBI's mandate includes preserving values in public life and ensuring the health of the national economy, and it operates under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions through the Department of Personnel and Training. This row is correctly matched.

• 1. CEIB. Coordinate between various law enforcement agencies, Ministry of Home Affairs: Incorrect. While the function description is broadly correct, CEIB falls under the Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue), not MHA.
• 2. SFIO. Investigate complex corporate frauds, Ministry of Finance: Incorrect. The function is correct, but SFIO comes under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not Ministry of Finance.
• 3. CBI. Preserve values in public life and ensure health of national economy, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension: Correct. Both function and controlling ministry are accurately matched.

Option (D) — 3, 4 and 5

• India has ratified the Employment Policy Convention (ILO C122) in 1998.
• India has ratified the Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (ILO C105) in 2000.
• India has NOT ratified the International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families (1990). Most destination countries for migrants have not ratified this convention.
• India has NOT ratified the Geneva Convention IV (Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War). India ratified the first three Geneva Conventions but not the Fourth. India has also NOT ratified the Convention on Reduction of Statelessness (1961).

• 1. Employment Policy Convention: Ratified by India in 1998. Hence not part of the answer.
• 2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention: Ratified by India in 2000. Hence not part of the answer.
• 3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families: Not ratified by India. Correct inclusion.
• 4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War: Not ratified by India. Correct inclusion.
• 5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness: Not ratified by India. Correct inclusion.

Option (D) — 3 only

• The AI Impact Summit 2025 (often referenced as leading to 2026 outcomes) was held in New Delhi. The Summit's framework was based on three Sutras: People, Planet, and Prosperity (not People, Planning, and Progress).
• The Preamble does reference Democratising AI Resources, but the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI is described as a non-binding/voluntary framework, not a binding framework as stated in Statement 2.
• The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars) which included themes such as Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI, making Statement 3 correct.

• 1. The Summit's intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras: People, Planning, and Progress: Incorrect. The three Sutras were People, Planet, and Prosperity.
• 2. The Preamble stresses Democratising AI Resources, acknowledging the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework: Incorrect. The Charter is a voluntary/non-binding framework, not a binding one.
• 3. The New Delhi Declaration was structured around seven Chakras including Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI: Correct. These were among the seven pillars of the declaration.

Option (A) — (a) 1 and 2

• India's Act East Policy emphasizes physical connectivity with ASEAN through road, rail, sea, and air links.
• Myanmar is the land bridge between India and ASEAN, hence most connectivity projects with ASEAN pass through Myanmar.
• Bangladesh is not a member of ASEAN, so India-Bangladesh connectivity projects fall outside India-ASEAN cooperation.
• ASEAN consists of 10 Southeast Asian nations including Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam, Indonesia, etc.

• Statement 1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project: Correct. It connects Kolkata to Sittwe port in Myanmar and onward to Mizoram, linking India with ASEAN member Myanmar.
• Statement 2. IMT Trilateral Highway: Correct. The India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway connects Moreh (India) to Mae Sot (Thailand) via Myanmar, both ASEAN members.
• Statement 3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line: Incorrect. It links Tripura with Bangladesh, which is not an ASEAN member country.

Option (B) — A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

• India undertakes several development assistance projects in its neighbourhood as part of its Neighbourhood First Policy.
• The Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project is a 720 MW run-of-river power plant in Trongsa Dzongkhag of Bhutan, built with Indian assistance and inaugurated in 2019.
• India also supports cultural restoration, health infrastructure, and capacity building projects in Afghanistan, Sri Lanka, and Maldives respectively.

• A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project: Correct match with Bhutan (3), a flagship Indo-Bhutan hydropower cooperation project.
• B. Restoration of Stor Palace: Correct match with Afghanistan (2), restored by India in Kabul and inaugurated in 2016.
• C. District Hospital at Dickoya: Correct match with Sri Lanka (4), built by India in the central tea plantation region.
• D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies: Correct match with Maldives (1), set up with Indian assistance for police training.

Option (A) — Only Su-30 MKI and T-90 are manufactured domestically.

• India has actively focused on domestic defense manufacturing through strategic technology transfer agreements with partner nations, particularly Russia.
• Public sector undertakings such as Hindustan Aeronautics Limited and various Ordnance Factories play a critical role in building advanced military hardware locally.
• While many fighter jets and battle tanks are produced natively, certain strategic assets like nuclear powered attack submarines involve highly classified technology and have been leased rather than fully manufactured domestically.

• Statement 1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets: Correct. These twin jet multirole air superiority fighters are built under license in India by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited.
• Statement 2. T-90 MK-III Tanks: Correct. The T-90 main battle tanks, famously known as Bhishma, are manufactured domestically at the Heavy Vehicles Factory in Avadi under a licensed production agreement with Russia.
• Statement 3. Akula Class Submarine: Incorrect. The Akula class nuclear powered submarines are not built in India. They have been leased directly from the Russian Navy, famously operated in India as INS Chakra.

Option (C) — Statements 2 and 3 only are correct

• The Colombo Process is a Regional Consultative Process (RCP) established in 2003, comprising 12 Asian labour-sending states to discuss management of overseas employment and contractual labour.
• The Abu Dhabi Dialogue was launched in 2008 as a forum bringing together Asian countries of labour origin and destination (Colombo Process states plus GCC countries) for dialogue on temporary contractual labour mobility.
• The Global Forum on Migration and Development (GFMD) was proposed by former UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan in 2006 and is an informal, voluntary, state-led process that produces non-binding outcomes.
• All three platforms are consultative in nature and do not produce legally binding decisions on member states.

• Statement 1: The Colombo Process is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus: Incorrect. The Colombo Process is a non-binding consultative forum; its decisions and recommendations are not binding on member states.
• Statement 2: The Abu Dhabi Dialogue is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility: Correct. It is indeed a voluntary, non-binding ministerial consultative process linking Asian labour-sending and receiving countries.
• Statement 3: The Global Forum for Migration and Development, created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature: Correct. GFMD was proposed by Kofi Annan and remains an informal, voluntary, state-led process with non-binding outcomes.

Option (A) — Only one organisation has won it twice.

• The Nobel Peace Prize has been awarded to the United Nations and its various specialized agencies or programs on several occasions.
• While many UN agencies have been recognized for their humanitarian work globally, only a select few have received the award more than once.
• Among the given options, only the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees has been honored with the Nobel Peace Prize twice.

• Statement 1. World Food Programme: Incorrect. The WFP was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize exactly once in 2020 for its efforts to combat hunger.
• Statement 2. United Nations Children's Fund: Incorrect. UNICEF received the Nobel Peace Prize exactly once in 1965 for its global work promoting child welfare.
• Statement 3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees: Correct. UNHCR has won the Nobel Peace Prize twice, first in 1954 and again in 1981 for its assistance to refugees.
• Statement 4. International Labour Organisation: Incorrect. The ILO was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize exactly once in 1969 to mark its fiftieth anniversary.

Option (B) — 3 1 4 2

• UNMIL (United Nations Mission in Liberia) operated from 2003 to 2018.
• MINURCAT (United Nations Mission in the Central African Republic and Chad) operated from 2007 to 2010.
• MINUSTAH (United Nations Stabilization Mission in Haiti) operated from 2004 to 2017.
• UNMISET (United Nations Mission of Support in East Timor) operated from 2002 to 2005.

• A. UNMIL: Matched with 3 (2003-2018). Correct. UNMIL was established in 2003 after Liberia's civil war and concluded in 2018.
• B. MINURCAT: Matched with 1 (2007-2010). Correct. MINURCAT was established in 2007 to address the crisis in Chad and CAR and ended in 2010.
• C. MINUSTAH: Matched with 4 (2004-2017). Correct. MINUSTAH was deployed in Haiti in 2004 and concluded in 2017.
• D. UNMISET: Matched with 2 (2002-2005). Correct. UNMISET succeeded UNTAET in East Timor in 2002 and ended in 2005.

Option (C) — Matches are A4, B2, C1, and D3.

• BIMSTEC stands for the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multisectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation.
• It operates several specialized centers to promote technical cooperation and research among its seven member nations.
• These centers are strategically located across member countries to harness specific regional expertise without centralizing all resources in one country.

• A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory is in Thimphu: Correct. It is located in Bhutan to promote cultural cooperation.
• B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre is in Bengaluru: Correct. It is situated in India to facilitate energy data sharing and cooperation.
• C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate is in NOIDA: Correct. It is established in India for advanced climate research.
• D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility is in Colombo: Correct. It is located in Sri Lanka to assist member states in technology capacity building.

Option (D) — 33 Corps - Srinagar

• The Indian Army's 33 Corps (also known as the Trishul Corps) is headquartered in Sukna, near Siliguri in West Bengal, not in Srinagar.
• 3 Corps is headquartered in Dimapur, Nagaland and is responsible for operations in the northeast.
• 4 Corps is headquartered in Tezpur, Assam.
• 14 Corps (also known as the Fire and Fury Corps) is headquartered in Leh and is responsible for the Ladakh sector. The corps based in Srinagar is 15 Corps (Chinar Corps).

• (a) 3 Corps - Dimapur: Correct. 3 Corps is indeed headquartered in Dimapur.
• (b) 4 Corps - Tezpur: Correct. 4 Corps is headquartered in Tezpur, Assam.
• (c) 14 Corps - Leh: Correct. 14 Corps (Fire and Fury Corps) is headquartered in Leh.
• (d) 33 Corps - Srinagar: Incorrect. 33 Corps is headquartered in Sukna (Siliguri), West Bengal, not Srinagar. The Srinagar-based corps is 15 Corps.

Option (B) — 2 only

• Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan or RGSA is a centrally sponsored scheme under the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
• It aims to strengthen and build the capacity of Panchayati Raj Institutions for effective rural governance.
• The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved the continuation of the revamped RGSA to align with the Fifteenth Finance Commission period.

• Statement 1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026: Incorrect. The approved period for the revamped scheme is from 1st April 2022 to 31st March 2026.
• Statement 2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals: Correct. The primary objective is to develop the governance capabilities of Panchayats to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals through local action.
• Statement 3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories: Incorrect. The funding pattern is 60 to 40 for general States, 90 to 10 for North Eastern and Hilly States, and 100 percent central funding is only for Union Territories.

Option (C) — 2 and 3

• The European Union currently has 27 member states following Brexit in 2020.
• Poland joined the EU in 2004 as part of the major eastern enlargement. Germany is a founding member of the EU (originally the EEC in 1957).
• Belarus is not a member of the EU. It is closely aligned with Russia and has an authoritarian government.
• Switzerland is not a member of the EU. It has historically maintained neutrality and has bilateral agreements with the EU but has never joined.

• 1. Belarus: Incorrect. Belarus is not an EU member state. It maintains close ties with Russia.
• 2. Poland: Correct. Poland has been an EU member since 2004.
• 3. Germany: Correct. Germany is a founding member of the EU/EEC.
• 4. Switzerland: Incorrect. Switzerland is not an EU member. It participates in some EU frameworks through bilateral treaties but has chosen not to join.

Option (C) — 4 2 1 3

• INTERPOL issues various colour-coded notices to communicate information among member countries. Each notice serves a specific purpose.
• Silver Notice is used to identify and trace criminal assets. Blue Notice is used to collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation.
• Black Notice is used to seek information on unidentified bodies. Green Notice is used to provide warnings about a person's criminal activities where the person is considered a possible threat to public safety.

• A. Silver Notice matched with 4 (To identify and trace criminal assets): Correct. Silver Notice specifically targets tracing assets linked to criminal activities.
• B. Blue Notice matched with 2 (To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation): Correct. Blue Notice is used to gather intelligence on suspects.
• C. Black Notice matched with 1 (To seek information on unidentified bodies): Correct. Black Notice is issued to seek information about unidentified deceased persons.
• D. Green Notice matched with 3 (To provide warning about a person's criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety): Correct. Green Notice warns about persons who pose a threat to public safety.

Option (B) — 1 and 3 only

• NIRANTAR is an integrated platform conceptualized by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to synergize the efforts of its various autonomous institutions and regional offices.
• The platform aims to transform, adapt and build climate resilience through collaborative research, biodiversity conservation and the sustainable application of natural resources.
• It categorizes functional responsibilities into specific verticals assigned to different lead institutions to avoid duplication of work and enhance functional efficiency.

• Statement 1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata: Correct. The Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata, serves as the lead institute for the Ecosystem Survey and Analysis vertical to comprehensively map and assess terrestrial and floral biodiversity.
• Statement 2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi: Incorrect. The lead institute for the Research and Management of Ecosystem Service vertical is the Wildlife Institute of India, Dehradun, and not the Central Zoo Authority.
• Statement 3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal: Correct. The Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal, is specifically designated as the lead institution for the Capacity Development Support vertical to build and enhance systemic institutional capacities.

Option (B) — Statements 1 and 4 are not correct

• The Chancellor of Germany visited India to hold bilateral discussions aimed at expanding economic ties, defense cooperation, and green technology partnerships.
• The visit resulted in several key outcomes, including agreements on regional security, sports development, and high level dialogues regarding the Indo-Pacific region.
• However, certain claimed outcomes such as the opening of new consular offices in specific Indian cities and particular educational memorandums were not part of the official agreements.

• Statement 1. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg: Incorrect. No such Memorandum of Understanding was signed with the University of Hamburg during this visit. It was with Charite University.
• Statement 2. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation: Correct. India and Germany signed an agreement to foster youth hockey development and strengthen sporting ties.
• Statement 3. Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific: Correct. Both nations officially agreed to establish a dedicated bilateral dialogue mechanism focusing on security and cooperation in the Indo-Pacific region.
• Statement 4. Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow: Incorrect. There was no official announcement regarding the opening of a German Honorary Consul in Lucknow.

Option (C) — Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

• DHRUV64 is an indigenous microprocessor designed by the SHAKTI processor team at the Indian Institute of Technology Madras.
• It was developed under the Digital India RISC-V Programme, an initiative designed to achieve self reliance in semiconductor and microprocessor design.
• The chip has applications in embedded systems, Internet of Things devices, and secure communications, marking a major milestone for the semiconductor mission of India.

• Statement 1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India: Correct. DHRUV64 is the third major chip taped out under the DIR-V initiative, which focuses on creating a robust ecosystem for domestic microprocessors.
• Statement 2. It is India's first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor: Correct. Designed and fabricated indigenously, it is officially recognized as the first homegrown 64-bit dual-core microprocessor operating at a speed of 1.0 GHz.

Option (C) — 1 and 2 only

• The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) introduced IS 19445 : 2025 as a national standard for testing and assessing bomb disposal systems.
• This standard aims to improve interoperability of equipment across various agencies involved in bomb disposal and counter-IED operations in India.
• The standard was developed with contributions from Indian defence and research organizations. The involvement of the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute of Russia is not established in this context.

• 1. The new standard is known as IS 19445 : 2025: Correct. This is the designated standard number for the bomb disposal system testing framework.
• 2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies: Correct. A key objective of standardization is ensuring equipment compatibility across different agencies.
• 3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia: Incorrect. The standard was developed domestically, and collaboration with the Russian institute is not a confirmed aspect of this standard.

Option (C) — John Clarke

• The 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded to John Clarke (among others) for contributions related to quantum sensing and superconducting devices.
• John Clarke was born in the United Kingdom and served as a professor at the University of California, Berkeley, an American university.
• Michel H. Devoret, while also associated with quantum physics, was born in France. Joel Mokyr is an economic historian and Richard Robson is a chemist, neither of whom received the 2025 Nobel Prize.

• a. Michel H. Devoret: Incorrect. He was born in France, not the UK.
• b. Richard Robson: Incorrect. He is not a 2025 Nobel Prize laureate.
• c. John Clarke: Correct. Born in the UK, professor at UC Berkeley, and awarded the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics.
• d. Joel Mokyr: Incorrect. He is an economic historian and was not awarded the 2025 Nobel Prize.

Option (A) — 1 and 2 only

• The Grand Slam tournaments consist of the Australian Open, Roland Garros, Wimbledon, and the US Open.
• These events are the most prestigious competitions in professional tennis, offering the highest ranking points and prize money.
• The rules governing these tournaments, including player eligibility and wild card entries, are outlined in the official Grand Slam Rulebook published annually.

• Statement 1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments: Correct. The Grand Slam Board serves as a shared governance structure that establishes a partnership among the four major tournaments and the International Tennis Federation.
• Statement 2. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14: Correct. According to the Grand Slam rulebook, the tournaments are open for entry to any internationally ranked player who is 14 years of age or older.
• Statement 3. There is a limitation on the number of Wild Cards a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament: Incorrect. The official rulebook explicitly states that there is no limitation on the number of Wild Cards a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam event.

Option (C) — HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. - Madhya Pradesh

• Under India's semiconductor mission, several plants were approved at various locations across India.
• CG Power's semiconductor OSAT plant in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics is located in Sanand, Gujarat.
• Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. (OSAT facility) is located in Jagiroad, Assam.
• The HCL-Foxconn joint venture (Foxconn was originally partnered with Vedanta, later HCL stepped in) was proposed but not for Madhya Pradesh. It was proposed for Gujarat. SicSem Pvt. Ltd. is planned in Odisha for silicon carbide semiconductors.

• a. CG Power and Industrial Solutions in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics. Gujarat: Correct match. This OSAT plant is in Sanand, Gujarat.
• b. Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd.. Assam: Correct match. Located in Jagiroad, Assam.
• c. HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd.. Madhya Pradesh: Incorrect match. This is not correctly matched as the location is not Madhya Pradesh.
• d. SicSem Pvt. Ltd.. Odisha: Correct match. This silicon carbide semiconductor plant is planned in Odisha.

Option (A) — Only Statement 1 is correct

• The Bharat Forecast System is an indigenous high resolution weather model designed to enhance localized weather predictions in India.
• It focuses on delivering granular meteorological data to support grassroots agriculture, disaster management, and local governance.
• The system was developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), an institute operating under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).

• Statement 1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level: Correct. The model is specifically designed to provide highly localized weather forecasts at the cluster of Panchayats level to assist farmers and grassroots administrators.
• Statement 2. It was developed by IIT Delhi: Incorrect. The system was developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), an institute operating under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).

Option (A) — 1, 2 and 3

• 'Boong' is an Indian film that won the BAFTA Award in the Children's and Family Film category in 2025, making it a historic achievement for Indian cinema.
• The film was directed by Lakshmipriya Devi, a filmmaker from Manipur, and it tells a story rooted in the Northeast Indian experience.
• This was indeed the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children's and Family Film category, marking a significant milestone.

• 1. The film has recently won the BAFTA Award in the Children's and Family Film category: Correct. Boong won this award at the 2025 BAFTA ceremony.
• 2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi: Correct. Lakshmipriya Devi directed this acclaimed film.
• 3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children's and Family Film category: Correct. It was a historic first for Indian cinema in this BAFTA category.

Option (C) — Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct

• Blockchain is a decentralized and distributed ledger technology that securely records transactions across many computers.
• Each block contains a cryptographic hash of the previous block, a timestamp, and transaction data, ensuring high security.
• The technology eliminates the need for a central authority, offering transparency, immutability, and traceability for various applications.

• Statement 1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration: Correct. The use of cryptography and consensus mechanisms ensures that stakeholders can view records transparently while the data remains completely immutable.
• Statement 2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network syncing within seconds: Correct. Blockchain functions as a distributed ledger where every participating node on the network maintains a full, continuously synced copy of the database.
• Statement 3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access: Incorrect. A hybrid blockchain is the exact blend of public and private networks. A consortium blockchain is specifically a permissioned network governed by a predefined group of organizations rather than a single entity.
• Statement 4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted: Correct. Cryptographic hashing creates a unique digital fingerprint for each block, meaning any alteration attempts will invalidate the entire subsequent chain.

Option (A) — Dropshipping Model

• Dropshipping is an e-commerce fulfillment method where the seller does not maintain any inventory of the products it sells.
• When a customer places an order, the seller forwards the order and shipment details to a third-party supplier (manufacturer or wholesaler), who ships the product directly to the customer.
• The seller retains control over pricing and customer interaction, earning the margin between the supplier's price and the retail price, while avoiding warehousing and logistics costs.
• Popular dropshipping platforms include Shopify, AliExpress, and Oberlo, making it a low-capital entry point for online retail entrepreneurs.

• Option (a) Dropshipping Model: Correct. It precisely matches the described setup where the seller controls pricing but outsources stocking and shipping to a third-party supplier.
• Option (b) Affiliate Revenue Model: Incorrect. Affiliates earn commissions by referring customers to other sellers' websites, they do not control pricing or process orders.
• Option (c) Transaction Fee Revenue Model: Incorrect. Here a platform earns fees for enabling transactions (like PayPal or stock brokers), not by selling goods through suppliers.
• Option (d) Agency Revenue Model: Incorrect. An agency acts on behalf of clients (like advertising agencies) and earns service fees, unrelated to product order fulfillment.

Option (C) — Access, Usage, and Quality

• The Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) was first published by the RBI in August 2021 to capture the extent of financial inclusion across the country.
• The index is constructed without any base year and reflects the cumulative efforts of stakeholders over the years towards financial inclusion.
• It is a composite index with values ranging between 0 and 100, where 0 represents complete financial exclusion and 100 indicates full financial inclusion.
• The FI-Index comprises three broad parameters with weights: Access (35%), Usage (45%), and Quality (20%), each consisting of various dimensions computed based on multiple indicators.

• Option (a) Credit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage: Incorrect. These are not the sub-indices defined by RBI for the FI-Index.
• Option (b) Banking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy: Incorrect. GDP contribution is not a parameter of the FI-Index.
• Option (c) Access, Usage, and Quality: Correct. These are the three official sub-indices of the RBI's FI-Index with respective weights of 35%, 45%, and 20%.
• Option (d) Access, Affordability, and Transparency: Incorrect. Affordability and Transparency are dimensions within Quality, not standalone sub-indices.

Option (C) — Enable interoperability, democratize e-commerce networks

• ONDC is an initiative launched by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce in 2021.
• It is incorporated as a non-profit Section 8 company, aimed at promoting open networks for all aspects of exchange of goods and services over digital networks.
• ONDC is based on open-source methodology, using open specifications and open network protocols, independent of any specific platform.
• The initiative seeks to democratize digital commerce by moving it from a platform-centric model to an open-network model, similar to how UPI transformed payments.

• (a) To allow government control over digital commerce transactions: Incorrect. ONDC is not about government control; it is a facilitator promoting an open, interoperable network.
• (b) To replace private e-commerce players: Incorrect. ONDC does not replace private players; it provides an open network where all players, including small sellers, can participate.
• (c) To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks: Correct. ONDC aims to democratize e-commerce by enabling buyers and sellers on different platforms to transact, breaking platform monopolies.
• (d) To mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions: Incorrect. ONDC concerns commerce interoperability, not mandating any specific payment method.

Option (D) — Digital Rupee is a liability of the RBI.

• Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a payment system that facilitates interbank peer to peer and person to merchant transactions.
• Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) or Digital Rupee is a legal tender issued by a central bank in a digital form.
• While UPI acts as an interface to transfer money already sitting in a bank account, the Digital Rupee is currency itself and represents a direct claim on the Reserve Bank of India.

• Option A. UPI is a real time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency: Correct. UPI is a payment interface for bank transfers, whereas the Digital Rupee is the digital equivalent of sovereign physical cash.
• Option B. In case of UPI settlement happens instantly but in case of Digital Rupee there is no settlement as wallet balance gets transferred: Correct. UPI involves bank settlements where money is debited and credited. The Digital Rupee moves from wallet to wallet without requiring interbank settlement.
• Option C. UPI transactions are recorded by banks but Digital Rupee transactions are not captured in bank statements: Correct. UPI transactions use bank accounts and appear on bank statements. Digital Rupee transactions happen between digital wallets and do not appear on bank statements.
• Option D. In both the cases the liability lies with the users and their respective banks: Incorrect. In UPI, the liability lies with the commercial banks holding the deposits. However, the Digital Rupee is a direct liability of the Reserve Bank of India, not the commercial banks.

Option (A) — 1, 2 and 3

• Real-World Asset (RWA) tokenization refers to converting ownership rights of physical or traditional financial assets (like real estate, commodities, bonds) into digital tokens on a blockchain.
• Blockchain-based tokenization enables 24x7 trading and access, unlike traditional markets with fixed hours, thereby promoting financial inclusion by lowering barriers to entry.
• Tokenization allows fractional ownership, which means individuals in India who could not previously access high-value investment opportunities (like commercial real estate or fine art) can now invest small amounts, opening up high-growth investment avenues.

• 1. Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology: Correct. This is the standard definition of RWA tokenization.
• 2. Tokenization of real world assets offers 24x7 access, promoting financial inclusion: Correct. Blockchain operates round the clock without market hours, and fractional ownership lowers entry barriers.
• 3. Tokenization of real world assets will allow access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India: Correct. Fractional ownership through tokenization democratizes access to previously exclusive asset classes.

Option (C) — Sustainability Bond

• According to the International Capital Market Association (ICMA), a Sustainability Bond is a bond where proceeds are exclusively used to finance or refinance a combination of both green (environmental) and social projects.
• Green Bonds finance only environmental/climate-related projects, while Social Bonds finance only social projects (e.g., affordable housing, healthcare).
• Sovereign Bonds are government-issued debt instruments and are not defined by the use of proceeds for environmental or social purposes.

Option (B) — 2 only

• M1xchange (operated by Mynd Solutions) is India's first TReDS (Trade Receivables Discounting System) platform, approved by the Reserve Bank of India.
• TReDS platforms facilitate the financing of trade receivables of MSMEs through discounting of invoices and bills of exchange. They do not provide direct loans or function as credit rating agencies.
• M1xchange enables MSMEs to get their receivables financed without the need for collateral, as the financing is based on the creditworthiness of the buyer (large corporates or government entities).

• 1. M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs: Incorrect. M1xchange is a TReDS platform that facilitates invoice discounting, not collateral-based lending. The financing is based on trade receivables, not collateral.
• 2. M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs: Correct. This is the core function of TReDS platforms like M1xchange.
• 3. M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs: Incorrect. M1xchange is a trade receivables discounting platform, not a credit rating agency. Credit rating is done by agencies like CRISIL, ICRA, etc.

Option (B) — A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment

• The Crowding Out Effect occurs when increased government spending or borrowing raises interest rates in the economy, thereby reducing private sector investment.
• When the government borrows heavily from the financial market to fund its fiscal deficit, it competes with private borrowers for available funds, driving up interest rates.
• Higher interest rates make borrowing costlier for private firms, leading to reduced private investment. This partially or fully offsets the expansionary effect of government spending.

• (a) Private investment increases due to increased Government spending: Incorrect. This describes a 'crowding in' effect, which is the opposite of crowding out.
• (b) Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment: Correct. This is the textbook definition of the crowding out effect.
• (c) Increase in taxes leads to increased private sector investment: Incorrect. Higher taxes generally reduce disposable income and do not describe crowding out.
• (d) Government spending has no impact on aggregate demand: Incorrect. Government spending does affect aggregate demand; the crowding out effect specifically concerns its impact on private investment via interest rates.

Option (A) — Only statements 1 and 3 are correct

• Rare Earth Elements and critical minerals are essential for advanced technologies, defense systems, and the transition to renewable energy.
• Global supply chains for these minerals are highly concentrated, prompting nations to secure their own supplies to prevent economic and security vulnerabilities.
• India has classified several minerals as critical and strategic, initiating specific missions and policies to boost domestic exploration and global acquisition.

• Statement 1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilize Rare Earth Elements (REEs): Correct. These elements are indispensable for manufacturing the specialized microchips, sensors, and high performance magnets required in advanced technologies.
• Statement 2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India: Incorrect. China has the highest global share in REE mining, but the second largest producer is typically the United States or Myanmar, not India.
• Statement 3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self reliance in the critical mineral sector: Correct. This mission was formulated to boost domestic exploration, secure global acquisitions, and reduce import dependency for strategic minerals.
• Statement 4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements: Incorrect. Rare Earth Elements are actually a set of 17 metallic elements, consisting of the 15 lanthanides on the periodic table along with scandium and yttrium.

Option (C) — Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Aviation insurance provides comprehensive coverage against risks associated with aircraft operation, including physical damage and various liabilities.
• The Montreal Convention 1999 is a multilateral treaty that unifies the rules for international carriage by air, focusing heavily on passenger protection and carrier liability.
• Under the convention, airlines face strict liability up to a specific limit of Special Drawing Rights, ensuring families receive initial compensation promptly without lengthy legal battles over negligence.

• Statement 1. 'Aviation Hull Insurance' covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment: Correct. This type of insurance specifically protects the physical assets of the aircraft against damage or loss while in flight, on the ground, or taxiing.
• Statement 2. Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault: Correct. The convention establishes a strict liability framework up to a certain compensation limit, meaning the carrier cannot escape liability for basic compensation by claiming they took all necessary measures.

Option (C) — Both 1 and 2

• Crowdfunding involves raising small amounts of capital from a large number of individuals, typically via internet-based platforms or social networking sites, to finance a specific project, business venture, or cause.
• SMEs benefit from crowdfunding as it allows them to access capital without the rigorous regulatory and procedural requirements of traditional financing methods such as IPOs or bank loans, often at a lower effective cost of capital.
• SEBI has issued consultation papers on crowdfunding in India, recognizing it as a mechanism for startups and SMEs to raise funds.

• 1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project: Correct. This is the standard definition of crowdfunding.
• 2. SMEs are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures: Correct. Crowdfunding enables SMEs to bypass traditional fundraising hurdles and access capital more easily and often at lower cost.

Option (D) — 2 and 4

• The R.N. Malhotra Committee (1994) recommended reforms in the insurance sector, but the organization that set it up was the Government of India (not IRDAI, which was established later in 1999 as a result of the committee's recommendations).
• The L.C. Gupta Committee was set up by SEBI in 1996 to develop a regulatory framework for derivatives trading in India. This match is correct.
• The Urjit R. Patel Committee (2014) was set up by RBI to revise and strengthen the monetary policy framework, particularly regarding inflation targeting. It was not about reforming bank lending to the housing sector.
• The Y.H. Malegam Committee (2011) was constituted by RBI to review issues and concerns in the microfinance sector, especially after the Andhra Pradesh microfinance crisis. This match is correct.

• 1. R.N. Malhotra Committee. Insurance sector reforms. IRDAI: Incorrect. The committee was set up by the Government of India, not by IRDAI. In fact, IRDAI was established as a result of this committee's recommendations.
• 2. L.C. Gupta Committee. Roadmap for derivatives trading. SEBI: Correct. SEBI constituted this committee in 1996 to design a framework for derivatives trading in India.
• 3. Urjit R. Patel Committee. Roadmap for reforming bank lending to Housing sector. RBI: Incorrect. The Urjit Patel Committee was constituted by RBI to revise the monetary policy framework (inflation targeting), not for housing sector lending reforms.
• 4. Y.H. Malegam Committee. Roadmap for reforms in Microfinance Sector. RBI: Correct. RBI set up this committee in 2010 to study issues in the microfinance sector and recommend regulatory measures.

Option (A) — 1 and 4

• NBFCs are financial institutions that provide banking-like services but do not hold a full banking license. They are regulated by the RBI under the RBI Act, 1934.
• NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits (savings/current accounts). Some categories of NBFCs can accept time/term deposits, but not demand deposits.
• Not all NBFCs need to be registered with RBI. Certain types such as housing finance companies (regulated by NHB), insurance companies, and some others are exempt from RBI registration.
• NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves. Also, DICGC deposit insurance is not available for deposits placed with NBFCs.

• 1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits: Correct. NBFCs are not permitted to accept demand deposits, which is a key distinction from commercial banks.
• 2. All NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with RBI: Incorrect. Certain categories of NBFCs, such as housing finance companies, insurance companies, chit fund companies, and others, are regulated by other authorities and are exempt from RBI registration requirements.
• 3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheques drawn on itself: Incorrect. NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves.
• 4. DICGC deposit insurance is not available to depositors of deposit-taking NBFCs: Correct. The DICGC covers deposits in banks only, not deposits in NBFCs.

Option (A) — 1 and 2 only

• The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) uses the Alkire-Foster methodology, developed by Sabina Alkire and James Foster at the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
• NITI Aayog's National MPI uses 12 indicators across three dimensions: Health, Education, and Standard of Living, aligned with the global MPI but with India-specific modifications.
• The Global MPI published by UNDP and OPHI uses 10 indicators across the same three dimensions.
• Bank Account is an indicator in NITI Aayog's MPI but not in the UNDP's Global MPI. Maternal Health is an indicator in NITI Aayog's MPI (as Maternal Health/ANC), while the UNDP Global MPI uses Nutrition (BMI) instead. Thus, they are not common to both.

• 1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology: Correct. Both the Global MPI (UNDP/OPHI) and NITI Aayog's National MPI employ the Alkire-Foster (AF) method for identifying and aggregating multidimensional poverty.
• 2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators: Correct. NITI Aayog's National MPI uses 12 indicators across three dimensions (Health, Education, and Standard of Living), which is more than the 10 indicators used in the Global MPI.
• 3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of UNDP: Incorrect. Bank Account is specific to NITI Aayog's MPI and is not part of the UNDP Global MPI. Maternal Health (ANC) is also specific to NITI Aayog's framework. The UNDP Global MPI does not include these as indicators.